Technology Essay Sample for a Reference

Technology essay is the type of writing that can cover any topic concerning technology field. Such essay can explain an impact which modern developments have on the everyday life, as well as on the business community. Moreover, this writing also estimates an influence of the technology which may be beneficial and harmful to the certain extent as well. Billions of people all over the world cannot imagine a single day without their gadgets. In any time and wherever they are people can express their feelings by sharing with others the ideas, thoughts, quotes, and intentions. This all is possible due to the Internet. The technology eliminates the social gap between nations, as well as cultures. Therefore, the world gradually becomes smaller and smaller, more integrated, and interconnected. People do not need to be the politicians, movie stars or famous sportsmen to be heard. All they need to do is to have an access to the World Wide Web. Moreover, an access to the Internet grants everyone the ability to keep in touch with anybody through such media as Facebook, Instagram, and Skype. Making the posts people show how they spend their spare time with friends, family, or lovers. To this end, our private life has become more public and, for instance, being in South Africa people can look after American pop stars following them in the socia l media. The doctors and scientists use technology in order to tackle the problems which ones have seemed to be impossible to handle with. In general, the overall level of health and education has increased over the recent years. The greatest breakthrough is that Human Immunodeficient Virus has transformed from the death sentence to a manageable disease. There also have been developed the supercomputers which help to perform a better diagnosis and treatment, as well as understand human genetic building blocks in order to use this knowledge to fight off diseases. In 2002 a full human genome sequence cost $100 million; currently, the price is $1,000; by 2020 can cost less than a cup of tea. With all these benefits, technology has a negative effect on our world as well. Most people just cannot engage in a conversation with their friends without using technology. To some extent, people become addicted to the mass media, social networking, and virtual reality. Furthermore, a great range of digital gadgets makes our brain work differently as it used to in the past. Nowadays, people do not want to remember a lot of the information as they can easily find it on the Internet; or do not make simple calculations in mind or on the paper as smartphone calculator can do it faster and promptly without mistakes. In addition, popular video games and various applications, from the early childhood, change the way children think and accept a real world. All in all, new technology does not automatically mean only benefits. It can help save the planet and put its development on the new level. At the same time, technology is able to destroy it and annihilate the mankind as a species from the face of the earth if people are not careful. Thus, humanity should think about stability and further development without reckless ideas and with a pure mind. References Bremmer, I. (2016). These 5 Facts Explain How Technology Is Shaping Our World. Time. Retrieved August 24, 2016, from http://time.com/4187146/davos-2016-technology-facts/ Elizabeth, M. (2015). 3 Ways Modern Technology Is Affecting Human Behavior And The World. Elite Daily. Retrieved August 24, 2016, from http://elitedaily.com/life/culture/3-ways-modern-technology-affecting-human-behavior-world/954683/ Greenfield, S. (2008). Modern technology is changing the way our brains work, says neuroscientist. Mail Online. Associated Newspapers. Retrieved August 24, 2016, from http://www.dailymail.co.uk/sciencetech/article-565207/Modern-technology-changing-way-brains-work-says-neuroscientist.html Laroya, G. (2010). Technology Affects The Worldwide Community. The Huffington Post. Retrieved August 24, 2016, from http://www.huffingtonpost.com/gil-laroya/technology-affects-the-wo_b_436243.html Walker, B. (2014). The Positive and Negative Impacts Technology Has on Our Daily Lives. University of Wisconsin-Platteville. Retrieved August 24, 2016, from https://www.uwplatt.edu/icet-news/positive-and-negative-impacts-technology-has-our-daily-lives

DNA and DNA Profiling Made Simple Essay - 3445 Words

1.1. Amplification If the quantity of the DNA isolated is not enough, the specialist increases it to optimal levels via an amplification technique that uses the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) process. In addition, PCR targets specific locations on the DNA strand known as the loci (singular: locus) to produce similar copies. 1.2. Electrophoresis In this process, the specialist separates the materials based on their size and composition of the DNA strands on a particular gel in the presence of electricity. The figure below displays the electrophoresis results (courtesy of How Stuff Works). 1.3. Analysis The last stage involves analyzing the DNA screening results obtained based on a particular program in the National DNA Database.†¦show more content†¦The criminal justice system employs DNA evidence in the conviction process. It is evident that technology affects the criminal justice system either directly or indirectly. For that reason, the lawyers and workers in the judicial system should better understand the various technological aspects of DNA. Unfortunately, the professional outline of the criminal justice system lacks the details concerning DNA. This calls for experts in biotechnology to interpret the various aspects of the technology and its application in the judicial system in a simplified mode as much as possible. This text presents a simplified guide that workers of the criminal justice system can follow to understand the concepts of DNA and its biotechnological application in the field of study. 3. DNA Background 3.1. What is DNA? The term DNA seems new and intricate to the judicial system because it does not closely relate to scientific terms. Hence, a lawyer needs to understand what the term represents. DNA, the abbreviation for deoxyribonucleic acid, refers to the major building component of life. It is a relatively long, twisted, and coiled miniature strand that holds coded information (sequence) necessary for directing and controlling all biochemical processes in the body. In addition, it is responsible for determining the body’s physical characteristics. For that reason, all individuals have DNA materials, which are behind the uniqueness they portray. In summary, the DNA materialShow MoreRelatedSolving Cases with Forensic DNA Analysis975 Words   |  4 PagesForensic DNA analysis is still a relatively new method that has been used to solve cases such as crimes and paternity tests. This method of forensic evaluation is examined by using genetic material, DNA, an acronym for deoxyribonucleic acid. Although each individual’s DNA differs from someone else’s, with the exception of identical twins, around 99.9% of DNA is the same in each person (The FBI DNA Laboratory). Therefore, in order to identify the genetic profile of the individual being analyzedRead MoreLaw Enforcement and New Technology846 Words   |  4 Pagestechnologies used in law enforcement in the textbook, I chose to take two types of technologies and elaborate their importance and their weakness to the Law enforcement field. * Biometrics and Automated Fingerprint Identification Systems * DNA Testing Biometrics and Automated Fingerprint systems are methods used to recognize the criminal by physiological, behavioral and characteristics of fingerprints. Biometrics has been used for many years and has since been upgraded to now identify criminalsRead MoreDna And The Human Body1485 Words   |  6 Pageswe call the DNA. It is predicted that there are over 3 billion base-pairs of DNA inside the average human. DNA itself is huge so let’s cover the basics you need to know about it. The DNA includes, RNA, Double-Helix, Base-pairing and an alternate DNA structure. It may seem amazing but beware your DNA can be damaged and or Replicated. In crime DNA comes very handy because detectives use forensics. Every living thing on the planet or most things have a DNA inside of them, therefore DNA is said to haveRead MoreGenetic Profiling: Legal Studies1907 Words   |  8 PagesGenetic Profiling Genetic profiling is a contemporary issue relating to the individual and technology which restricts access to unbiased decisions and privacy. Genetic profiling interferes with the individuals bodily, genetic and behavioural privacy, as it can be used for the benefit of identifying bodies to using the results of a DNA test to choose whether to employ one individual over another, due to future concerns. It can easily be argued that genetic profiling is in the need of law reformRead MoreImpact Of Dna Fingerprinting3430 Words   |  14 PagesDNA profiling technologies have had a considerable impact on how forensic science and criminal investigation have been understood, carried out, and regulated in the last 25 years. Current methods of forensic DNA profiling (known also as DNA fingerprinting and DNA typing), based on Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) amplifications of a varying number of Short Tandem Repeat (STR) loci found at different locations on the human genome, are regularly descri bed as constituting the â€Å"gold standard for identification†Read MoreThe Crime Scene Of A Virginia Man999 Words   |  4 Pagesforms of evidence have been allowed in court in many cases and have also convicted many innocent people. Years later, their cases have been re-opened with new DNA evidence and have set the innocent free. According to the Innocence Project, Randolf Arledge was accused and convicted for murder. This article states that, â€Å"in 2011, they secured DNA testing of the physical evidence with the cooperation of the Navarro County District Attorney’s Office. The testing included hair samples from the hairnet andRead More Use of DNA in Criminal Investigations Essay2863 Words   |  12 Pagesmain source of evidence. Notoriously unreliable, these techniques have since faded away to the stunning reliability of DNA forensics. In 1984, British geneticist Alec Jeffreys of the University of Leicester discovered an interesting new marker in the human gen ome. Most DNA information is the same in every human, but the junk code between genes is unique to every person. Junk DNA used for investigative purposes can be found in blood, saliva, perspiration, sexual fluid, skin tissue, bone marrow, dentalRead MoreDna Forensics And The Human Genome2746 Words   |  11 Pages DNA Forensics Before the 1980s, courts relied on testimony and eyewitness accounts as a main source of evidence. Notoriously unreliable, these techniques have since faded away to the stunning reliability of DNA forensics. In 1984, British geneticist Alec Jeffreys of the University of Leicester discovered an interesting new marker in the human genome. Most DNA information is the same in every human, but the junk code between genes is unique to every person. Junk DNA used for investigative purposesRead MoreDna Forensics And The Human Genome2744 Words   |  11 Pagesmain source of evidence. Notoriously unreliable, these techniques have since faded away to the stunning reliability of DNA forensics. In 1984, British geneticist Alec Jeffreys of the University of Leicester discovered an interesting new marker in the human genome. Most DNA information is the same in every human, but the junk code between genes is unique to every person. Junk DNA used for investigative purposes can be found in blood, sa liva, perspiration, sexual fluid, skin tissue, bone marrow, dentalRead MoreTechnology And The Field Of Criminal Justice Essay1321 Words   |  6 Pagestechnology does not begin to infringe on a person’s individual civil liberties. The 1900s brought on many technology advances regarding the criminal justice field. One of the first technological advances made was the ability to test an individual’s fingerprints. A fingerprint is an impression or mark made on a surface by a person’s fingertip, especially as used for identifying individuals from the unique pattern of whorls and lines. The United States Supreme Court first accepted fingerprints in 1911.

Tax and Central Excise Free Essays

string(68) " Circulars can be issued by the Government of India Answer: 1\) No\." ICWAI Objective Type questions and Answers on Indirect Tax 1. Multiple Choice Questions (1) Excise duty can be levied on those goods which are a) Manufactured in India b) Sold in India a) Removed from the factory b) None of the above (2)Dutiable goods means a) Goods are subject to Central Excise duty b) Goods which are exempted from excise duty c) Non excisable goods d) Goods not at all mentioned in the Central Excise Tariff (3)Place of Removal under Central Excise means a) Removing the goods from the place of distributor b) Removing the goods from the place of customs station c) Removing the goods from the place of factory ) None of the above (4)Non-Dutiable goods means a) Name of the product not mentioned in the Tariff Act b) Name of the product mentioned in the Tariff Act c) Name of the product mentioned in the Tariff Act with the Rate of Duty d) Name of the product mentioned in the Tariff Act with the Zero Rate (5)Payment of Central Excise Duty depends up on a) Removal goods from the place of removal b) Manufacture of goods in the factory c) Deemed manufacture of goods d) Removal goods for branch transfer (6)The excise duty on alcoholic goods manufactured by the manufacturer is payable to a) State Government ) Central Government c) Corporation d) Local authority (7)Which of the following duties is covered under the First Schedule of the Central Excise Tariff Act? a) Basic Excise duty b) Special Excise Duty c) Additional Excise Duty d) Education Cess (8)Which of the following duties is under the purview of the State Government? a) Central Excise duty b) Customs duty c) Service tax d) VAT (9)Which are the goods still under the physical control? (a)Plastic products (b)Cigarette products (c)Apparel products (d) Glass products (10) At the time of manufacture of product X attracts 14% BED. At the time of removal the rate of duty is 8%. We will write a custom essay sample on Tax and Central Excise or any similar topic only for you Order Now Which is the duty attracts for the product X a) 14% b) 8% c) 11% (Average) d) Zero (Because the rate has changed) Answer: (a) (a) (c) (d) (a) (a) (a) (d) (b) (b) 2. Fill in the Blanks 1) Central Excise duty can be levied at the time of 2) Goods at the time of manufacture, not mentioned in the Central Excise Tariff Act, can be called 3) Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 containssections 4) Goods are classified under Central Excise Tariff Act based on theof Nomenclature havingdigit classification 5)The goods included in theSchedule of Central Excise Act are same as those on which excise duty is payable under section 4A of the Act. 6) Goods at the time of manufacture, mentioned in the Central Excise Tariff Act, can be called 7) Goods are classified under Central Excise Tariff Act based on thesystem 8) There are Chapters under the Central Excise classification 9) Labelling and relabelling comes under 10) Service tax came into force fromFinance Act Answer: Manufacture of goods in India Non excisable goods 20-sections Harmonized System Eight Third. Excisable goods Harmonized System of Nomenclature 96 chapters Third Schedule of Central Excise 1994 3. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons All goods manufactured are subject to central excise duty. All Excisable goods are dutiable goods No duty can be levied if the goods manufactured by the manufacturer is not movable but marketable Goods has been defined in the Central Excise Act Manufacturer includes deemed manufacturer There is no difference between levy and collection 7) Duty can also be collected even if the goods are non-excisable at the time of manufacturer, but are excisable at the time of removal of goods from the place of removal. Duty rates are specified in the Central Excise Act, 1944 Central Excise Duty Rate is indicated against each tariff item and not against heading or sub-heading. Manufacture includes any process incidental or ancillary to the completion of a manufactured product. Marketability is essential to levy the central excise duty 12) Goods mentioned in the First Schedule or Second Schedule to the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 are called non-excisable goods. Manufacturer is not defined under Central Excise Tariff Act. 14) Brand name owner is a manufacturer even though under contract a third party completely manufactures the product Classification is irrelevant, since all products attract 14% duty Circulars can be issued by the Government of India Answer: 1) No. You read "Tax and Central Excise" in category "Essay examples" Goods manufactured in India may be excisable goods or non-excisable goods. No central excise duty, if the goods are non-excisable. No. Excisable goods may be dutiable or non-dutiable goods. 3) Yes. No duty can be levied if the goods manufactured by the manufacturer is not movable but marketable as per the decision of the Supreme court of India in the case of Union of India v Delhi Cloth and General Mills Ltd. No. The term goods has not been defined in the Central Excise Act, 1944. Yes. Manufacturer includes deemed manufacturer 6) No. The term â€Å"LEVY† means imposition of tax/duty. Collection of duty is postponed to the stage of removal of goods. [Rule 4 of the Central Excise Rules, 2002] 7) No. Duty can not be collected if the goods are non-excisable at the time of manufacture, but are excisable at the time of removal. No. Duty rates are specified in the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985. Yes. Duty Rate is indicated against each tariff item and not against heading or sub-heading. 10) Yes. Manufacture includes any process incidental or ancillary to the completion of a manufactured product. Yes. Marketability is essential to levy the central excise duty. 12) No. Goods mentioned in the First Schedule or Second Schedule to the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 is called excisable goods. 13) No. The term manufacturer has been defined under section 2(f) in the Central Excise Act, 1944. The definition under section 2(f) is not exhaustive but inclusive. 14) No. Brand name owner is not a manufacturer even though under contract a third party completely manufactures the product. No. Classification is relevant, even though all products attract 14% duty. No. Circulars can be issued by the Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC). 4. Multiple Choice Questions (1) As per Rule 15 the Central Excise Rules, 2002, the option of paying duty is available to those manufacturers who manufacture (a)Aluminium circles (b)Plastic Products (c)Gold Products (d) Agriculture Products (2) Goods specified under Standards of Weights and Measures Act, 1976 as well as in the notification issued by the Government of India along with rate of abatement can be assessed under a) Maximum Retail Price (b) Transaction Value (c) Retail Price (d) Whole Sale Price (3) Captively Consumed Goods means (a) Goods manufactured and consumed with in the factory (b)Goods manufactured (c) Goods purchased and used in the factory (d) Goods received from branch (4) Interconnected undertakings means (a) Head office and Branch office (b) Holding and subsidiary companies (c) Group of companies (d) Companies under the same management (5) Which one of the following will come under the Specific Rate of Duty? (a)Cigarette product (b) Wood product (c)Plastic product d)Diesel product (6) What percentage should be added to the cost of production in the case of captive consumption? (a) 15% (b) 10% (c) 0% (d) 20% (7) MRP product Assessable value will be calculated as (a)Transaction basis (b)MRP less abatement (c) Percentage of tariff value (d)None of the above (8) Which one of the following will form part of transaction value (a) Transportation charges from the place of removal to the place of buyer (b) Transportation charges from the place of factory to the place of branch (c) Transportation charges from the place of distributor to the place of buyer d) Transportation charges from the place of buyer to any other place (9) Assessable does not include one of the following (a) Cost of material (b) Cost insurance (c) Cost of transportation (d) Interest on delayed payment (10) As per Rule 10 of th e Central Excise Valuation Rules, the concept of interconnected undertakings means (a) Associate companies (b) Group companies (c) Holding and Subsidiary companies (d) None of the above Answer: (1) (a) (2) (a) (3) (a) (4) (b) (5) (a) (6) (b) (7) (b) (8) (b) (9) (d) (10) (c) 5. Fill in the Blanks 1) Specific Duty means duty is payable based on the____________and__________by the assessee (2) Provisions under section 4A have___________effect over section 4 of the Central Excise Act (3) Production 1500 units, quantity sold 510 units @ 250 per unit, 840 units @ 200 per unit, sample clearances 35 units and the balance 150 units are in stock. Hence, the assessable value is Rs. _________ (4) Excisable goods consumed within the factory for the manufacture of final product is called___________ (5) X Ltd (Holding Company) sold goods to Y Ltd (Subsidiary Company) at Rs. , 00,000. In turn Y Ltd sold goods to Z Ltd (unrelated person) at Rs. 1, 10,000, then the assessable value in the hands of X L td________. (6) Assessable in case of captive consumption is the cost of production plus_______ (7) The transaction value cannot be considered as assessable value if, any one or part of the conditions____________. (8) MRP provisions are not applicable for packaged commodities meant for________. (9) Compound Levy Scheme is an___________schemes. (10) Dharmada Charges recovered from the buyer is form part of__________. Answer: (1) Length and weight of the product 2) Overriding (3) Rs. 3, 02,500 (4) Captive consumption (5) Rs. 1, 10,000 (6) @10% (7) Not satisfied (8) Industrial or institutional consumers. (9) Optional (10) Assessable Value 6. Say Yes Or No, Give Reasons (1) Specific Duty means duty is payable by the assessee on excisable goods based on the value of goods. (2) Compound levy scheme means an optional scheme (3) Maximum Retail Price means not exclusive of duties and taxes (4) Transaction value is applicable only when conditions specified in the provisions are satisfied. 5) Dharmada charges collected from the buyer are not includible in the assessable value. (6) Excise duty and sales tax has to be included in the assessable value (7) There is no basis of valuation under Central Excise Law (8) Insurance charges from the place of depot to the place of buyer shall form part of assessable value (9) Captive consumption goods need not be certified by the Cost Accountant (10) Cash discount does not form part of assessable value. Answer: (1) No. Specific Duty means duty is payable by the assessee on excisable goods based on the length and weight of the products. (2) Yes. Compound levy scheme means an optional scheme (3) Yes. Maximum Retail Price means not exclusive of duties and taxes (4) Yes. Transaction value is applicable only when conditions specified in the provisions are satisfied. (5) No. Dharmada charges collected from the buyer are includible in the assessable value. (6) No. Excise duty and sales tax has to be excluded in the assessable value (7) No. There are five basis of valuation under Central Excise Law (8) No. Insurance charges from the place of depot to the place of buyer shall not form part of assessable value (9) No. Captive consumption goods need be certified by the Cost Accountant (10) Yes. Cash discount does not form part of assessable value. 7. Multiple Choice Questions (1) ARE -1 Form should have following colors (a) White; Buff; Pink and Green (b) White; Buff; Red and Green (c) White; Buff; Black and Green (d) White; Buff; Rose and Green 2) CT- 1 form will be issued by the Merchant exporter to the Manufacturer for clearing the goods (a) Without payment of Central Excise (b) Avoidance of Central Excise duty (c) With payment of reduced rate of Central Excise Duty (d) With payment of full amount of Central Excise Duty. (3) Certificate of procurement of goods under procedure for export Warehousing can be done under the (a) CT-3 Form (b) CT-2 Form (c) ARE -1 (d) Bond -1 (4) The Letter of Undertaking is valid for a perio d of (a) 12 months from the date of acknowledgement by the department. b) 15 months from the date of acknowledgement by the department (c) 24 months from the date of acknowledgement by the department (d)6 months from the date of acknowledgement by the department (5) Excisable goods removed for re-warehousing and export therefrom without payment of duty by using the (a) B-3 Bond (b)B-2 Bond (c) B-4 Bond (d)B-7 Bond (6) Some times; if in the view of the Central Excise Department the manufacturer carries risk (namely discrepancies) the Department may ask him to submit the Bond in. (a)B-l with security or surety (b)B-2 with security and surety c)B-3 with security (d) B-4 with surety (7) CT-1 form received by the manufacturer from (a)Merchant exporter (b)EOU unit (c)Manufacturer (d)First stage dealer (8) The Export Oriented Units can procure indigenous material without payment of central excise duty. These units have to issue (a)CT -3 certificate (b)CT-4 certificate (c)CT-1 certificate ( d)CT-2 certificate (9) If proper invoice for export along with the packing list and ARE -1 form in (a) Sixtuplicate (b) Duplicate (c) Triplicate (d) Quadruplicate (10) No rebate is allowed if the rebate amount is less than a)Rs. 500 (b)Rs. 1,000 (c) Rs. 2,000 (d) Rs. 4,000 Answer: (1) (a) (2) (a) (3) (b) (4) (a) (5) (a) (6) (a) (7) (a) (8) (a) (9) (a) (10) (a) 8. Fill in the Blanks (1) No rebate is allowed if the rebate amount is less than________ (2) Goods can be removed by executing a bond in case of merchant exporter with____________or without (3) Proof of export which is issued by the customs authorities by certifying the_______________ (4) ________________certificate is required only when bond is executed by the merchant exporter. 5) The goods exported to_______________and_________not eligible for rebate (6) An exporter who executes a bond to exempt himself from payment of excise duty will not be eligible to claim___________ (7) Bond is executed by the Merchant Exporter he may be required to obtain a_________from his banker for a specified amount. (8) __________is called as general bond with Surety/Security for removal of goods without payment of duty (9) In case of security bond in the form of cash deposit no________can be allowed (10) If goods are sealed by excise officer such a sealing is called __________ Answer: 1) Rs. 500 (2) with sealing or without sealing (3) ARE-1 Form (4) CT-1 (5) Nepal and Bhutan (6) Rebate (7) Bank Guarantee (8) B-l Bond (9) Interest (10) One Time Bottle Seal 9. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons (1) Export of goods with invoice but without the packing list can be exported (2) ARE -1 Form need not be prepared if the goods are exported under Bond. (3) Merchant exporter means a person engaged in manufacturing of goods for exporting or intending to export goods. 4) CT-1 forms will be issued by the superintendent of Customs to the merchant exporter on execution of bond (namely B – 1) (5) ARE-1 Form is to be prepared by the exporte r in quadruplicate (6) Bonds under Central Excise are always secured (7) No duty is payable on exported goods. Therefore there is no need of valuation and classification (8) Self-sealing can be done by any person of the unit (9) ARE-1 form is not required to be prepared by the exporter. (10) Export has to be completed within 3 months from the date of removal from the factory Answer: 1) No. Export of goods with invoice and with the packing list can be exported (2) No. ARE -1 Form need to be prepared even if the goods are exported under Bond. (3) No. Merchant exporter means a person engaged in purchase of excisable goods for the purpose of exporting or intending to export goods. (4) No. CT-1 forms will be issued by the superintendent of central excise to the merchant exporter on execution of bond (namely B-l) (5) No. ARE-1 form is to be prepared by the exporter in sixtuplicate (6) No. Bonds under Central Excise may be secured or unsecured. 7) No. classification and valuation is requir ed for the purpose of determining the duty draw-back or DEPB license etc. (8) No. Sealing of Goods for Export which may be self-sealing or under seal of Central Excise. (9) No. ARE-1 form is required to be prepared by the exporter. (10) No. Export has to be completed within 6 months from the date of removal from the factory 10. Multiple Choice Questions (1) The unutilized CENVAT Credit can be carried forward (a) Up to 6 months (b) Up to 8 years (c) Without any time limit (d) Up to 10 years. 2) Cenvat Credit on capital goods can be claimed in the year in which it is purchased (a) Up to 50% (b) Up to 100% (c) Up to 25% (d) Up to 75% (3) Cenvat Credit on goods other than capital goods can be utilized (a) As soon as goods received into the factory (b) Only after payment actually made (c) Only after the goods actually sold (d) As soon as manufacture takes place (4) Cenvat Credit is not applicable if the following goods are purchased (a) Light Diesel Oil (b) Steel products (c) Plastic pro ducts (d) Wood products 5) Cenvat Credit can be adjusted against (a)Dutiable goods manufactured (b)Non-dutiable goods manufactured (c) Non-excisable goods manufactured (d)All excisable goods manufactured (6) Which of the following items is a capital goods (a) Tools, hand tools (b)Raw materials (c) Consumables (d) Accessories (7) Depreciation under section 32 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 should not have been claimed (a) On the cost portion of the Capital Goods (b)On the excise portion of the Capital Goods. (c) On the portion of other than Capital Goods d) On the portion of Factory Building (8) Cenvat credit can be utilized for payment of excise duty levied on any (a) Final products (b)Input products (c) Exempted products (d)Intermediary non-dutiable products (9) Personal Ledger Account must be prepared in (a) Triplicate (b) Single (c) Double (d) Quadruplicate (10) Cenvat credit on inputs other than capital goods can be allowed at (a) 100% (b)50% (c)25% (d) 0% (11) A unit availing SSI exemption can avail of CENVAT credit on capital goods but such credit can be utilized only (a) if the value of apital goods exceeds Rs. 100 lakh (b) after clearance of Rs. 150 lakh (c) if the capital goods are exported Answer: (1) (c) (2) (a) (3) (a) (4) (a) (5) (a) (6) (a) (7) (b) (8) (a) (9) (a) (10) (a) (11) (b) 11. Fill in the Blanks (1) Motor vehicles are not_____________goods for purpose of Manufacture (2) In respect of capital goods sent for job work these should be brought back within_________days from the date of dispatch. 3) The Second Stage Dealer means a dealer who purchases goods from a_______________ (4) The PLA is credited when duty is deposited in bank by_________challan (5) Depreciation should not be claimed by the manufacturer who avails the Cenvat credit on___________ (6) The term ___________ means raw-materials, consumables, accessories used to manufacture the finished product. (7) Don’t maintain separate set of accounts but pay an amount equal to ________ ___of the value of exempted goods and forego the Cenvat credit of inputs utilized exclusively for manufacture of exempted final product. 8) Balance of CENVAT Credit Receivable (inputs) Account and PLA Account are shown as ____________in the Assets side of the Balance Sheet. (9) Due date of payment of Central Excise Duty for the month of March is______________ (10) Input tax credit on capital goods can be______________against the duty payable final products. Answer: (1) Capital (2) 180 days. (3) First Stage Dealer (4) GAR-7 (5) Capital Goods (6) In the manufacture (7) 10% (8) Current Assets. (9) 31st March (10) Claimed. 12. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons 1) Cenvat credit can be taken as soon as the inputs are dispatched by the supplier (2) Cenvat cannot be utilized for payment of duty on waste (3) Cenvat credit on capital goods is restricted to 50% of the duty in the year of the receipt (4) If there is no excise duty final products, cenvat credit cannot be claimed in the case of sale in DTA (5) When credit has been taken on input goods and the same is removed for home consumption, excise duty is not payable (6) In September 2008, the Government came out with the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 by merging the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2002 and the Service Tax Credit Rules, 2002. 7) The term â€Å"Capital goods† under Cenvat Rules is DIFFERENT from the term capital goods as understood in accounting or in income-tax (8) In the case of goods cleared for DTA for input credit to be claimed, the finished product should suffer at least Re 1 of excise duty (9) If a single invoice covers goods falling under different sub-heading, separate entries shall be made for each of such sub-heading (10) In case of inputs and capital goods Cenvat credit is available as soon as input is received in the factory. Answer: (1) Yes. Cenvat credit can be taken as soon as the inputs are received by the manufacturer. 2) No. Cenvat can be utilized for payment of duty on waste (3) Yes. Cenvat credit on capital goods is restricted upto 50% of the duty in the year of the receipt and the balance in the subsequent year or years. (4) Yes. Cenvat credit cannot be claimed in the case of sale in DTA if the final products are non-dutiable. (5) No. Cenvat credit not allowed on those goods which are cleared as such for domestic tariff area. (6) No. In September 2004, the Government came out with the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2004 by merging the Cenvat Credit Rules, 2002 and the Service Tax Credit Rules, 2002 (7) Yes. The term â€Å"Capital goods† under Cenvat Rules is DIFFERENT from the term capital goods a: understood in accounting or in income-tax (8) Yes. goods cleared for DTA for input credit to be claimed, the finished product should suffer at least Re 1 of excise duty (9) Yes. Single invoice covers goods falling under different sub-heading, separate entries shall be made for each of such sub-heading (10) Yes. Input goods and capital goods Cenvat credit is available as soon as input is received in the factory. 13. Multiple Choice Questions 1)A manufacturer being eligible for SSI related exemptions is linked to his turnover in the previous year a) Less than Rs. 400 Lakhs b) Less than Rs. 150 Lakhs c) Less than Rs. 90 Lakhs d) Less than Rs. 350 Lakhs (2)SSI Exemption scheme adopted by the manufacturer he is not required to pay the central excise duty up to a) Rs. 150 Lakhs on dutiable goods b) Rs. 300 Lakhs on dutiable goods c) Rs. 400 Lakhs on dutiable goods d) Rs. 100 Lakhs on dutiabl e goods (3)Value of captive consumption goods is forming part of the Rs. 400 Lakhs turnover, if the final product a) Exempt in any notification ) Not exempt in any notification c) Exempt under Notification 8/2003 d) None of the above (4)Industries are not eligible for SSI exemption irrespective of their turnover. a) Automobiles b) Plastic c) Paper d) Electronic and Electrical (5)The due date for filing Quarterly return ER -3 under Central Excise is a) 20th of the following month. b) 10th of the following month c) 5th of the following month d) 15th of the following month (6)The due date for payment of Central Excise Duty by the SSI unit for the month of April is a) 15th of the following month b) 15th of October c) 10th of the following month ) 5th of the following month (7)Frequency of audit for SSI unit paying central excise duty is less than Rs. 10 Lakhs. a) Once in 2 years b) Once in 5 years c) Once in 10 years d) Every year. (8)Job worker is exempt from basic excise duty if the s upplier of raw material had undertaken payment of excise duty under a) Notification 24/86 Central Excise Law b) Notification 214/86 Central Excise Law c) Notification 8/2003 Central Excise Law d) Notification 18/2003 Central Excise Law (9)Registration is not required if the turnover for small scale units a) Less than Rs. 15 0 Lakhs ) Less than Rs. 90 Lakhs c) Less than Rs. 100 Lakhs d) Less than Rs. 10 Lakhs (10)What is to be done if turnover exceeds Rs 90 lakhs but is less than Rs 150 lakhs? a) Declaration to be filed b) No Declaration to be filed c) Declaration may be filed d) Declaration must be filed after attaining Rs. 150 Lakhs Answer: 1) (a) 2) (a) 3) (a) .. 4) (a) 5) (a) 6) (a) 7) (b) 8) (b) 9) (a) 10) (a) 14. Fill in the Blanks 1) SSI exemption is available only when the turnover in the previous year turnover is less than 2) SSI unit can clear the excisable goods uptowithout payment of duty. ) Quarterly returnto be filed before the due dateof the following month by the SSI units claiming the exemption notification (4)Payment of duty is on monthly basis and has to be made on or beforeof the following month 5) No declaration needs to be given to the department if the previous year turnover is less than 6) A Job worker is exempt from basic excise duty if the supplier of raw material had undertaken payment of excise duty under Notificationof Central Excise 7) SSI units will get the Cenvat Credit only over and abovetaxable turnover during the current year. ) Registration is not required for SSI units if the turnover during the previous year is less than of taxable turnover. 9) Audit of SSI units is conducted once innumber of years 10) Export turnover isfor the calculation of turnover under the notification 8/2003. Answer: Rs. 400 Lakhs Rs. 150 Lakhs ER-3, 20th 15th of the following month Rs. 90 Lakhs 214/1986 Rs. 150 Lakhs. Rs. 150 Lakhs. Two to five Exempted. 15. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons 1) The Government of India issued Notification No. 8/2003 providi ng relaxation from central excise duty, without any conditions. ) If in a previous year the turnover of a manufacturer is equal to Rs. 4 crores then he can in the current year claim the exemption benefits available to a SSI. 3) SSI units opted the exemption notification benefit can pay duty if the dutiable goods cleared from the factory exceeds Rs. 150 lakhs and claim Cenvat credit on inputs. 1) Manufacturers who have Cenvat credit (on capital goods plus on other than capital goods) which is more than the duty payable on exempted turnover will opt for SSI exemption benefit. ) Clearance of excisable goods without payment of duty to 100% EOU unit will form part of turnover to calculate the threshold limit of Rs. 4 crores. Sales to Nepal and Bhutan is considered as an export sales. Export procedures are very tough for SSI units. Exempted units from central excise duty are also exempted from registration. Audit of SSI unit is conducted every year. There is no difference between method o f calculation of Rs. 400 Lakhs and Rs. 150 Lakhs. Answer: 1) No. The Government of India issued Notification No. 8/2003 providing relaxation from central excise duty, with conditions. ) No. Previous year the turnover of a manufacturer is equal to Rs. 4 crores then he cannot claim in the current year exemption benefits available to a SSI. 3) Yes. SSI units opted the exemption notification benefit can pay duty if the dutiable goods cleared from the factory exceeds Rs. 150 lakhs and claim Cenvat credit on inputs. 4) No. Manufacturers who have Cenvat credit (on capital goods plus on other than capital goods) which is more than the duty payable on exempted turnover may not opt for SSI exemption benefit. 5) No. Clearance of excisable goods without payment of duty to 100% EOU unit will not form part of turnover to calculate the threshold limit of Rs. 4 crores. No. Sales to Nepal and Bhutan considered as home clearance. No. Export procedures are not tough for SSI units. Yes. Exempted units from central excise duty are also exempted from registration. No. Audit of SSI unit is conducted not on yearly basis. Yes. There is a difference between method of calculation of Rs. 400 Lakhs and Rs. 150 Lakhs. 16. Multiple Choice Questions (1)Registration is compulsory for the dealer who intends to act as a) First Stage Dealer ) Third Stage Dealer c) Dealer d) Purchaser (2)An application for registration under central excise law is required to be made in a) Form A-l b) Form B-1 c) Form CT-1 d) Form ARE-1 (3)The DSA shall be preserved for a) Five Years b) Two Years c) One Year d) Six Months (4)The excise duty payable by the manufacturer is based on a) Invoice b) Gate Pass c) Lorry receipt d) Debit Note (5)W hich one of the following is to be submitted by the manufacturer on a monthly basis a) ER – 1 b) ER – 3 c) ER – 5 d) ER – 7 (6)Original invoice has to be issued to the a) Buyer b) Transporter c) Central Excise Department ) Consignment Agent (7)The penalty for non-registration is a) Amount of duty of contravening goods or Rs 10,000 whichever is higher b) Amount of duty of contravening goods or Rs 10,000 whichever is less c) Amount of duty of contravening goods or Rs 1,000 whichever is higher. d) Amount of duty of contravening goods or Rs 5,000 whichever is higher (8)The due date of payment of tax through e-payment is a) 6th of the following month b) 5th of the following month c) 31 st of every month d) 15th of the following month (9)LTU will be headed by a) Chief Commissioner of CBDT or of CBEC ) Chief Commissioner of CBEC c) Commissioner of Central Excise d) Commissioner of Income Tax. (10)CIN stands for a) Challan Identification Number b) Cash Identifica tion Number c) Commission Identification Number d) Central Information Number. Answer: (a) (a) (a) (a) (a) (a) (a) (a) 1) (a) 2) (a) 17. Fill in the Banks The 15 digit PAN based registration number is called 2) Registration under Central Excise can be granted in the name of a minor, provided a legal guardian undertakes to The penalty for delayed submission of return can extend upto The term GAR means A LTU is an undertaking which has paid central excise or service tax of more thanduring the previous year. (6)The first page and the last page of the DSA shall be duly authenticated by the orperson LTUs will get facilities of payment of tax throughsystem. 8) Every assessee compulsorily files the annual installed capacity statement before 30th April of the succeeding financial year in theForm 7) The due date of payment of tax through e-payment is 6th of the following month by the manufacturers and by 16th of the following month in the case of SSI units. In the case of March month the due is 8) When goods are removed from the factory of the manufacturer to some other premises for purposes of â€Å"Testing† or for â€Å"any other process not amounting to manufacture†, excise duty need not be paid provided the permission ofof Central Excise is obtained. Answer: Excise control code Conduct the business Rs. 5,000 Government Account (Receipt and Payment) Rules Rs. 5 crore. manufacturer or his authorized person single window ER – 7 31st March Commissioner 18. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons Application for registration as a manufacturer should be made Form A-l A 5 digit PAN based registration number (ECC) will be allotted to the assessee There is no penalty for non-registration, even when registration under the statute is compulsory Daily Stock Account can be updated once in month Invoice under central excise law is required to be made in triplicate Payment of duty can be made once in six months 7) E-payment is mandatory for those manufactures who have paid central excise duty is Rs 50 lacs or more during the preceding financial year. ) If the assessee mentions CIN in the Return, it is not necessary to attach the copy of challan with the Return. Challan Identification Number (CIN) has three parts. 100% EOU has to submit the monthly return in ER-2 Form. Answer: Yes. Application for registration as a manufacturer should be made in Form A-l No. A 15 digit PAN based registration number (ECC) will be allotted to the assessee 3) No. There is penalty for non-registration which is Rs. 10,000 or duty on contravening goods whichever is higher No. Daily Stock Account should be updated on daily basis, two days delay is allowed. Yes. Invoice under central excise law is required to be made in triplicate No. Payment of duty can be made on monthly basis 7) Yes. E-payment is mandatory for those manufactures who have paid central excise duty is Rs 50 lacs or more during the preceding financial year. 8) Yes. If the assessee mentions CIN in the Return, it is not necessary to attach the copy of challan with the Return. Yes. Challan Identification Number (CIN) has three parts. Yes. 100% EOU has to submit the monthly return in ER-2 Form. 19. Multiple Choice Questions (1)Desk Review audit is a part of a) Special Audit b) C AG Audit c) Excise Audit 2000 ) Investigation (2)In the case of Excise Audit 2000, selection of assessee is based on a) Risk factor b) Non-risk factor c) Merit of assessee d) Value of goods (3)Time period to issue notice before commencing the audit. a) 20 days b) 5 days c) 25 days d) 15 days (4)Cenvat credit audit can be ordered by a) The Chief Commissioner of Central Excise. b) The Commissioner of Centr al Excise c) The Assistant Commissioner of Central Excise d) The Deputy Commissioner of Central Excise (5)Yearly audit is applicable for those units who paid the central excise duty by way of cash more than a) Rs. 300 Lakhs b) Rs. 150 Lakhs ) Rs. 100 Lakhs (d) Rs. 90 Lakhs Answer: 1) (c) 2) (a) 3) (d) 4) (b) 5) (a) 20. Fill in the Blanks 1) Units paying duty more than Rs 3 crore has audit 2) C A G submits the report to the, who causes these to be laid before each House of Parliament. 3) Valuation Audit carried out by. 4) The expenses of Cenvat credit audit and audit fees shall be paid by. 5) The maximum time limit for submission of such cost audit report isdays from the date of receipt of cost audit order by the manufacturer (6) C AG submits the report to the, who causes these to be laid before each House of Parliament. 7) The audit plan should be documented in the. (8) The Cost Accountant has to submit his audit report within the time specified by the______________. (9) Road chec ks are carried out by the department authorities to check whether all goods moving are accompanied bydocuments or not. (10)A minimum ofnotice should be given to the assessee before commencing the audit. (11)Stock taking can be done by the superintendent or Inspector of central excise for ______________and___________. Answer: Yearly The President of India. Cost Accountant Excise Department 180 days The President of India. Working papers Commissioner or Commissioner of Central Excise. Duty paying. 15 days. Finished goods and Cenvat goods 21. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons 1. Excise audit is compulsory every year if the payment of excise duty is more than 3 crores. 2. There are three types of excise audits under Central Excise Law. 3. Desk review audit can be conducted by a practicing Chartered Accountant or a practicing Cost Accountant in the premises of manufacturer. 4. Valuation audit can be ordered by the Superintendent of Central Excise 5. The expenses and audit fees shall be paid by Assessee . Returns are filed by the assessee without verification by the Excise department. Hence no audit is required to be conducted. 7. Central Excise Revenue Audit (known as CERA Audit) conducted by the Cost Accountant or Chartered Accountant. 8. The desk review is a part of the internal audit procedure and the services of the professionals are taken to help the department. 9. Valuation Audit can be ordered only with the prior approval of Chief Commissioner of Central Excise. 10. The desk review audit should be completed in 5-7 working days Answer: 1) Yes. Excise audit is compulsory every year if the payment of excise duty is more than 3 crores. 2) Yes. There are three types of excise audits under Central Excise Law. 1) No. Desk review audit can be conducted by a practicing Chartered Accountant or a practicing Cost Accountant in the premises of Department. 2) No. Valuation audit can be ordered by the Assistant or Deputy Commissioner of central excise after getting the prior permission of Chief Commissioner of Central Excise. 3) No. The expenses and audit fees shall be paid by the department. 3) No. Returns are filed by the assessee without verification by the Excise department. Hence audit is required to be conducted. 4) No. Central Excise Revenue Audit (known as CERA Audit) conducted by the C and A G department. 4) Yes. The desk review is a part of the internal audit procedure and the services of the professionals are taken to help the department. 5) Yes. Valuation Audit can be ordered only with the prior approval of Chief Commissioner of Central Excise. 5) Yes. The desk review audit should be completed in 5-7 working days. 22. Fill in the Blanks Service Tax is a tax on. Service Tax is applicable to the whole of India except the statue of. Registration is mandatory if the value of taxable services exceeds Rs. during the financial year. 4) Form________________is used for applying for registration under Service Tax. 5) The Due date of payment of service tax for the month is________________of the succeeding month. 6) The effective rate of service tax including Education Cess is________________. 7) Registered premises means all premises from where an assessee is providing____________________. ) The present rate of service tax is___________ plus_______________plus. 9) The Service tax provider is required to issue (within 14 days of completion of service) an_____________ signed by him or a person authorized by him. (10)If service tax payment is made through internet banking, such e-payment can be made by__________ of the following month or following quarter as the case may be. Answer: 1. Value of taxable services 2. Jammu and Kashm ir 3. Rs. 9,00,000 4. ST-1 5. 5th 6. 12. 36% 7. Taxable services 8. 12% plus 2% plus 1% 9. Invoice. 10. 6th 23. Say Yes Or No, Give Reasons ) The list of records needs to be maintained is not provided in the Service Tax Rules 2) Single registration in the case of multiple services rendered is possible subject to conditions 3) The due date for monthly return for service tax is the 25th of the succeeding month in the case of a company 4) A service provider is the person who renders the service 5) GAR-7 is the form used to pay Service tax 6) Service tax records are to be maintained at the registered premises of the service provider. 7) For any delayed payment of service tax, interest cannot be levied. 8) If Service tax paid during the previous year is in excess of Rs. 0 lakhs then e-payment is mandatory 9) Single Registration is possible with the permission from Department, only when the assessee maintains centralized billing or centralised accounting for multiple services provided fro m more than one premises. 10) If the last day of payment and filing return is a public holiday, tax should be paid and return filed on the previous working day. Answer: 1) No. This list is to be submitted once at the time of filing his first S. T. 3 return. Sales register, Purchase register, Cash book, Petty cash book, General ledger, etc. 2) Yes. Single registration in the case of multiple services rendered is possible subject to conditions 3) No. The due date for submitting the return is half yearly 25th October and 25th April. There is no monthly return concept in the service tax provisions. 4) Yes. A service provider is the person who renders the service 5) Yes. GAR-7 is the form used to pay Service tax 6) Yes. Service tax records are to be maintained at the registered premises of the service provider. 7) No. For any delayed payment of service tax, interest mandatory. 8) Yes. If Service tax paid during the previous year is in excess of Rs. 0 lakhs then e-payment is mandatory 9) Yes. Single Registration is possible with the permission from Department, only when the assessee maintains centralized billing or centralised accounting for multiple services provided from more than one premises. 10) No. If the last day of payment and filing return is a public holiday, tax can be paid and return can be filed on the next working day. 24. Multiple Choice Questions (1)Service tax can be levied on the a) Taxable services b) Exempted services c) Partly exempted and partly taxable services d) On purchase of input goods (2)Value of works contract includes ) Cost of consumables, electricity b) Value of transfer of property in goods c) Value of VAT or Sales Tax on the above d) None of the above (3)A person who neither intends to hold nor holds any title to the goods or services is called a) Pure Agent b) Dealer c) Service tax provider d) Manufacturer (4)Under Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006, Act means a) The Finance Act, 1994 b) The Central Excise Act, 1944 c) Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 d) Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 (5)Service tax is not applicable to the state of a) Jharkhand b) Himachal Pradesh c) Tripura d) Jammu and Kashmir 6)The importer of service is liable to pay service tax only when the service provider having a) No place of business in India b) Place of business in India c) Permanent ad dress in India d) None of the above (7)The service tax paid on input services claimed as Cenvat credit after the export of service a) Can be claimed rebate (i. e. duty drawback) b) Cannot be claimed any rebate c) Can be claimed as refund d) None of the above (8)If the immovable property in respect of which service is rendered outside India the service is considered an export a) Irrespective of where the payment has come from ) Only when payment came from overseas. c) Partly from overseas d) Even without payment received from an importer. (9)The value of any taxable service, as the case may be, does not include a) The rail fare collected by rail travel agent b) Value of services collected by rail travel agent c) Services provide by the consultant d) None of the above (10)Which of the following services does not come under export of service? a) Air transport of passengers embarking for international travel b) Export of services with respect to immovable property c) Export of services with respect to management consultancy services d) None of the above. Answer: (a) (a) (a) (a) (d) (a) (b) (a) (a) (a) 25. Fill in the Blanks 1. Service tax liability is dependent upon the type of thewho provides the taxable service 2. Service tax can be levied on theand 3. Services provided by Central or State Government are taxable unless these services are 4. If the value is not ascertainable thenshould be referred for arriving the value of such services. 5. Out of pocket expenses incurred arein the value of taxable service. 6. The expenditure or costs incurred by the service provider as aof the recipient of service shall be excluded from the value of the taxable service . Receipt of advance money is not 8. Taxable event in the case of import is the date of 9. Service tax is payable onof taxable service actually received and not on amount billed, even though taxable event arises. 10. The costs incurred by the service provider as aof the recipient of service shall be excluded from the value of the taxable service Answer: 1) Person. 2) Taxable Service and Value of Taxable Service 3) â€Å"statutory services† 4) Service Tax (Determination of Value) Rules, 2006. 5) Includible. 6) Pure Agent 7) a taxable event 8) actual import 9) The value. 10) Pure Agent 6. Say Yes or No, With Reasons 1) If a service is rendered free service tax is not payable because the value of the service is zero and no amount is received from the customer. 2) There is concept of pure agent that exists for the purpose of service tax valuation. 3) The value of goods transferred to the job worker is not included in the assessable value of service. 4) Service Tax can be levied on an advance payment received. 5) The central excise officer has the power to determine the value of the services after providing an opportunity to be heard to the assessee. ) Services delivered by a person having a place of business in Jammu and Kashmir to a person having a place of business in Andhra Pradesh is subject to service tax. 7) Statutory services are also taxable services . 8) Some services are taxable when provided to â€Å"any person†. If a service falls in that category, service provided on sub-contract basis will be liable to pay service tax. 9) A person having a place of business in Andhra Pradesh provides to a person having a place of business in Jammu and Kashmir. Such service is liable to service tax law. 0) The airfare collected by air travel agent in respect of service provided by him does not include in the value of services. Answer: 1) Yes. If a service is rendered free service tax is not payable because the value of the service is zero and no amount is received from the customer. 2) Yes. There is concept of pure agent that exists for the purpose of service tax valuation. 3) Yes. The value of goods transferred to the job worker is not included in the assessable value of service. 4) Yes. Service Tax can be levied on an advance payment received. 5) Yes. The central excise officer has the power to determine the value of the services after providing an opportunity to be heard to the assessee. 6) Yes. Services delivered by a person having a place of business in Jammu and Kashmir to a person having a place of business in Andhra Pradesh is subject to service tax, place of delivery of service is important. 7) No. Statutory services are not taxable services 8) Yes. Some services are taxable when provided to â€Å"any person†. If a service falls in that category, service provided on sub-contract basis will be liable to pay service tax. 9) No. A person having a place of business in Andhra Pradesh provides to a person having a place of business in Jammu and Kashmir. Such service is liable to service tax law. 10) Yes. The airfare collected by air travel agent in respect of service provided by him does not include in the value of services. 27. Multiple Choice Questions 1. Service tax liability arises only when the taxable turnover of the previous year exceeds a) Rs. 10,00,000 b) Rs. 9,00,000 c) Rs. 8,00,000, d) Rs. 7,00. 000 2. No service tax will be levied on value of goods and material supplied to the service recipient while roviding service, provided Cenvat Credit on such goods and material is a) not taken b) taken c) partly reversed d) none of the above 3. One of the following services is a â€Å"reverse charge† a) Mutual Fund distributors services b) Management consultancy services c) Telecommunication services d) Information Technology services 4. Services rendered to the Reserve Bank of India is a) taxable servi ce b) exempted service c) partly exempted d) none of the above 5. Importer of service is liable to pay service tax only when a) provider of service has no place of business in India b) provider of service has place of business in India ) import of service is not taxable in India d) provider of service is related to the importer 6. Services are taxable only when defined under a) Section 65( 105) of Finance Act, 1994 b) Section 64( 105) of Finance Act, 1994 c) Service Tax Rules d) Section 4 of the Central Excise Act, 1944 7. Which one of the following service is called reverse charge a) Service provider is liable to pay service tax b) Service receiver is liable to pay service tax c) No one is liable to pay service tax d) Whose services are exempted from service tax 8. Services provided to United Nations employees for their personal purposes is a) Liable to pay service tax ) Not liable to pay service tax c) Partly liable to pay service tax d) None of the above 9. ACA firm had a turnove r of Rs. 17 lakhs in Yl. Its turnover was Rs. 5 lakhs in Y2, Rs. 8 lakhs in Y3 and Rs. 5 lakhs in Y4. In which years is the firm liable to pay service tax? a) Yl and Y2 b) Yl,Y2andY3 c) Y2 and Y3 d) None of the above 10. Exemption turnover of Rs. 10 lakhs for previous year it is the value of taxable service rendered and for the current year a) Value of taxable service received b) Value of taxable services rendered c) Value of taxable services partly received and partly rendered d) None of the above. Answer: 1) (a) 2) (a) 3) (a) ) (b) 5) (a) 6) (a) 7) (b) 8) (b) 9) (a) 10) (a) 28. Fill in the Blanks 1. If the taxable services exceedbut is less thanthen the service provider will have to register with the Superintendent of Central Excise under the Service Tax provisions. 2. For certain services service tax liability is to be paid by the service receiver is called 3. Services provided to Special Economic Zones (or) services provided by Special Economic Zones are 4. Service tax liability is exempted if the turnover is less than or equal to 5. If the taxable turnover during the current year 2008-09 exceedsthen there is no exemption limit in the year 2009-10. Answer: 1) Rs. 9,00,000 but less than Rs. 10,00,000 2) Reverse charge 3) Non Exempted Services 4) Rs. 10,00,000 5) Rs. 10,00,000. 29. Multiple Choice Questions 1. What is the due date for payments of service tax in the case of a partnership firm? a) 5th day of the month immediately following every month b) 25th day of the month immediately following every quarter c) 5th day of the month immediately following every quarter d) 25th day of the month immediately following every month 2. ‘A Ltd’ enters into an advertising contract with ‘B Ltd. ‘ for a sum of Rs. 15,000 on 5-6-2006. ‘A Ltd. ‘ receives an advance of Rs. 10,000 on 06. 6. 2006 and the balance amount on the completion services of service on 12. 07. 2006. The service tax payable by ‘AB Ltd. ‘ is: a) Rs. 1836 by 25-8-2006 a) Rs. 1224 by 25-6-2007 and Rs. 612 by 25-8-2006 b) Rs. 1836 by 5-8-2006 b) Rs. 1224 by 5-7-2006 and Rs. 612 by 5-8-2006 3. ‘Y Ltd’ provides manage ment consultancy services to ‘X’ for a consideration of Rs. 20,000 . ‘Y Ltd. ‘ raises the bill on ‘X’ on 05. 06. 2006. ‘Y Ltd. † receives the payment from ‘X† on 15. 07. 2006. When should ‘Y Ltd. ‘ pay the service tax? a) on or before 5-8-2006 b) on or before 5-7-2006 c) on or before 31 -7-2006 d) on or before 30-6-2006 . Service tax is payable to the credit of the Central Government in: a) Form ST-3 b) GAR -7 challan c) Form F d) None of the above 5. Adjustment of excess of service tax can be allowed on the basis of a) Pro-rata b) Total amount at time c) Only 80% d) Only 50% 6. Penalty for not maintaining the proper books of accounts may extend to a) Rs. 5,000 b) Rs. 50,000 c) Rs. 2,500 d) Rs. 1,000 7. An assessee is allowed to rectify mistakes and file revised return a) Within 90 days from the date of filing of the original return b) Within 180 days from the date of filing of the original return c) Without a ny time limit ) None of the above 8. E- payment of service tax is mandatory only when the payment of service tax exceeds a) Rs. 50 Lakhs b) Rs. 5 Lakhs c) Rs. 10 Lakhs d) Rs. 15 Lakhs 9. How much abatement will be allowed to Mandap Keeper, Hotels and Convention Services providing full catering services a) 40% b) 60% c) 100% d) 50% 10. Cenvat credit is not allowed if the input services are exclusively used in the output services a) Exempted service b) Export of services c) Taxable export of services Answer: (c) (d) (a) (b) (a) (a) (a) (a) (a) (b) 30. Fill in the Blanks 1. Abatement is an amount that can befrom the value of the service. 2. In the case of Individuals the due date for payment of service tax for the III quarter is 3. In the case of companies the service tax for October is payable on or before of 4. For all assessees the due date for payment of service tax for the service rendered in the month of March is 5. E-payment of service tax has been made mandatory for assessees who have paid service tax of more than Rs. during the last financial year or during the current financial year 6. Half yearly return has to be filed using Form; The number of copies should be _____ 7. The time limit for filing revised return isdays from the date of 8. Penalty for not obtaining registration is Rs. per day for every day of default or Rs. whichever is higher. 9. The penalty will be reduced to%, if tax, interest and penalty are paid within 30 days from the date of receipt of order of Central Excise Officer. 10. The facility of e-payment of service tax has also been introduced from Answer: Deducted 5th of January 5th of November 31st March 1) Rs. 50,00. 000 2) ST – 3 , triplicate 3) 90 days from the date of filing the original return. 4) Rs. 00 per day or Rs. 5, 000. 5) 25%. 6) 11. 05. 2005 31. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons It is necessary to specify the heading under which the service being provided is falling. 2) Service provided from India with respect to immovable property situated abroad is called export of services. 1) There can be no reversal of Cenvat credit on input service towards Interior decorator services used to produce partly dutiable goods as well as non dutiable goods. 2) There can be no reversal of Cenvat credit on input services for an output service provider if the final services are deemed exports. ) Due date of payment of service tax for e-payer is the 6th of following month including the dues for March month. Service tax will be paid by an individual on monthly basis Due date of submission of half yearly return ST – 3 is 30th September Revised returns can be filed with in 90 days from the date of original return filed by the assessee E- payment of service tax is compulsory for every assessee Provisional assessment is not applicable at any given case under service tax provisions. Answer: 1) Yes. Specify the heading under which the service being provided is falling is necessary for the purpose of classification. ) Yes. Service provided from India with respect to immovable property situated abroad is called export of services. 3) No. There should be reversal of Cenvat credit on input service towards Interior decora tor services used to produce partly dutiable goods as well as non dutiable goods. 4) Yes. There can be no reversal of Cenvat credit on input services for an output service provider if the final services are deemed exports. 5) No. Due date of payment of service tax for e-payer is the 6th of following month except the dues for March month. No. Service tax will be paid by an individual on quarterly basis No. Due date of submission of half yearly return ST-3 is 25th October and 25th April. Yes. Revised returns can be filed within 90 days from the date of original return filed by the assessee No. E- payment of service tax is not compulsory for every assessee No. Provisional assessment is applicable under service tax provisions. 32. Multiple Choice Questions (1)Voluntary registration if turnover does not exceed a) Rs. 10,00,000 b) Rs. 1. 00,000 c) Rs. 12,00,000 d) Rs. 50,00,000 (2)Registration is Compulsory based on transactions (irrespective of turnover) if the dealer falls under the following categories ) Dealer is an importer b) Dealer selling goods within the state c) Dealer is dealing with the exempted goods d) None of the above. (3)Dealer is liable to pay tax at Special rates as specified in Schedule. a) Eligible to avail the VAT credit b) Not eligible to avail the VAT credit c) 50% of VAT eligible for credit d) Eligible to avail the VAT credit after registered under VAT (4)The prescr ibed authority may cancel the registration of a VAT dealer, where the VAT dealer: a) Has no fixed place of business b) Has place of business c) Has place of residence d) None of the above 5)Compulsory registration under VAT applicable if the dealer a) deals with inter-state sales b) deals with exempted goods c) buying and selling goods in the state d) none of the above Answer: 1) (a) 2) (a) 3) (b) 4) (a) 5) (a) 33. Say Yes or No, With Reasons 1) There are two types of registration (i) Compulsory Registration (ii) Voluntary Registration. 2) Dealers whose Voluntary Registration always rejected by the department 3) Dealer dealing with inter-state sales has to compulsorily register under the State VAT. 4) Registration is also available under VAT for TOT dealers or compounding tax opted dealer. ) A certificate of registration under VAT is not available. Answer: Yes. There are two types of registration (i) Compulsory Registration (ii) Voluntary Registration. No. Dealers whose Voluntary Re gistration always not rejected by the department Yes. Dealer dealing with inter-state sales has to compulsorily register under VAT. Yes. Registration is also available under APVAT for TOT dealers Yes. A certificate of registration under VAT is in the Form VAT 105 34. Multiple Choice Questions (1)How many Schedules are there under the VAT Act. a) Five Schedules b) Six Schedules c) Seven Schedules ) Eight Schedules (2)Goods specified under Schedule V will be taxed at the rate of a) 0% b) 1% (c) 4% (d) 12. 5% (3)Under which Schedule do Bullion and Specie come? a) Schedule 1 b) Schedule II c) Schedule III d) Schedule IV (4)The point of levy of tax for Aviation and other motor spirit is the point of a) First sale in the State b) Second sale in the State c) First and Second sale in the State d) Third sale in the State (5)Sale of taxable goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce falling within the scope of section 3 of the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 are called ) Zero rated sale s b) Exempted sales (c). Non-exempted sales (d) Taxable sales (6)VAT rate on all kinds of Pulses and Dhalls is a) 1% b) 4% c) 12. 5% d) 0% (7)At the point of first sale in the state the following product attracts 32. 55% of VAT a) Petrol b) Machinery c) Liquor d) Diesel Oil (8)Abbreviate ITC a) Input Tax Code b) Input Tax Credit c) Initial Tax Credit d) In-house Tax Credit (9)Sale of vegetables and fruits other than those cured, frozen, preserved, processed, dried, dehydrated or canned are called a) Exempted sales b) Taxable sales c) Partly exempted sales d) Special sales 10)Kerosene sold through public distribution system will attract VAT rate a) 0% b) 1% c) 4% d) 12. 50% Answer: 1) (b) 2) (d) 1) (c) 3) (a) 4) (d) 5) (b) 6) (a) 7) (b) 8) (a) 9) (c) 35. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons 1) Input Tax Credit can be allowed in respect of Schedule VI goods 2) Gold and Jewellery are liable to tax under VAT @ 1% 3) Goods that fall under the Schedule I will get Input Tax Credit 4) Generally sale of books, periodicals and journals are exempted goods under VAT. 5) VAT rates are common for all the products specified in Schedule V 6) The first seller of special goods in Andhra Pradesh is liable to pay. The second seller of these goods is not liable to charge and pay tax on his sales. 7) Liquor, at the point of first sale in the State of Andhra Pradesh, is subject to VAT @ 70% 8) VAT rate is zero in respect of sales of goods to any unit located in the Special Economic Zone. 9) Sugar product is listed in the First Schedule and is exempt from VAT. 10) All intangible goods including copyright, patent, rep license, DEPB are subject to VAT @4% Answer: No. Input Tax Credit can not be allowed in respect of Schedule VI goods. These goods are subjected to tax at special rates. Yes. Gold and Jewellery are liable to tax under VAT @ 1%. No. Goods that fall under Schedule I will not get Input Tax Credit. Because these goods are exempted goods. Yes. Generally sale of books, periodicals and journals are exempted goods under APVAT. Yes. VAT rates are common for all the products specified in Schedule V. Yes. The first seller of special goods in Andhra Pradesh is liable to pay. The second seller of these goods is not liable to charge and pay tax on his sales. Yes. Liquor, at the point of first sale in the State of Andhra Pradesh, is subject to VAT @ 70%. Yes. VAT rate is zero in respect of sales of goods to any unit located in the Special Economic Zone. Yes. Sugar product is listed in the First Schedule and is exempt from VAT. Yes. All intangible goods including copyright, patent, rep license, DEPB are subject to VAT @4%. 36. Multiple Choice Questions (1) Input Tax Credit (ITC) can be claimed if the inputs are used for a) business purpose b) personnel purpose c) distributing as free sample d) captive consumption (2)Every registered dealer must file return for each month on or before a) 20th of the succeeding month b) 10th of the succeeding month ) 5th of the succeeding month d) End of the current month (3)ITC can be claimed against inter-state sale only when those sales are supported by a) Form C b) Form D c) Form H d) Form I (4)The period covered by the return is called a Tax Period and will cover a a) Calendar month b) Calendar year c) Half a month d) Six months (5)The method under which tax is imposed at each stage of sales on the enti re sale value and the tax paid at the earlier stage is allowed as set-off is called a) Invoice method b) Subtraction method c) Deductive method d) Value addition and deletion method 6)Under Invoice method, tax credit can’t be claimed unless and until the a) Tax Invoice is produced b) Tax amount paid c) Goods are delivered d) Actual sales take place (7)VAT paid at reduced rate is called a) Compounding Levy of tax b) Non-compounding levy of tax c) Value added tax d) Sales tax (8)Sales returns is allowed as a deduction from the taxable turnover of goods if the goods are returned with in a) Six months of sales b) Twelve months of sales c) Three months of sales d) One month of sales (9)Product X is taxable @ 4% and Product Y is taxable @12. 5%. Product X is sold for Rs. 100,000 and Product Y for Rs. 0. 000. Total input tax credit is available for Rs. 5,000. What would be the net VAT payable? a) Rs. 5,250 b) Rs. 5,000 c) Rs. 2,500 d) Rs. 10,250 (10)A dealer in Andhra Pradesh paid C ST of Rs. 1,000 on inter-state purchases. VAT payable by him on local sales is Rs. 1,250. The Net VAT payable is. a) Rs. 250 b) Rs. 1,250 c) Rs. 1,000 d) Rs. 750 Answer: (A) (a) (a) (a) (a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (b) 37. Fill up the Blanks 1) VAT is apoint tax and helps to removeeffect. 2) There are two types of dealersand. 3) Input Tax is applicable only to. 4) Application for registration under APVAT can be made using Form No.. ) Schedule I lists the items that arefrom the VAT 6) The Input Tax Credit for VAT paid goods is not available for goods not meant for. 7) The due date for filing of Monthly VAT return isin the Form. 8) There are three methods for computation of VAT namelyand 9) Input Tax Credit can be claimed against inter-state sale only when those sales are supported by Form 10) The Department can reject the Voluntary Registration application made by dealer if he does not have a Answer: 1) Multi point, cascading effect. 2) VAT Dealer and TOT Dealer. 3) VAT Dealer 4) VAT 100 5) E xempt 6) Business ) 20th of the succeeding month, Form 200 8) Addition method, Invoice method and subtraction method 9) Form ‘C’ 10) Place of business 38. Say Yes or No, Give Reasons Taxable sales does not included Zero rated Sales Zero rates and Exempted sales are one and the same There is no such concept as Voluntary registration in VAT Schedule VI lists the items that are charged to tax at Special rates 5) Schedule V is a residuary head. Any items that does not find a place under Schedule I, II, III or IV can be classified under this schedule Input Tax credit can also be availed on Capital Goods ) TIN means Tax Identification Number which is nothing but the Unique VAT registration number allotted to all registered dealers Input Tax Credit can be availed for the Zero rates Sales 9) Input Tax Credit can be availed on Inter state purchases, or goods received by consignment sales or stock transfer to this s How to cite Tax and Central Excise, Essay examples

Assessing Sustainability Of Construction -Myassignmenthelp.Com

Questions: What Is The Impact Of Sustainability In Construction Management? What Is The Significance Of Sustainability In Construction Management? Answers: Introduction This is a research, which focuses on the impact of sustainability in construction management. This study will consists of five parts, which includes the introduction, literature review, methodology of research, findings and analysis and conclusion. The present condition of the global environment is degrading due to the depletion of the natural resources, which will cause a long-term effect on the sustainability. The quality is degrading at a rapid rate and it will keep on happening if sustainability practices are not maintained. The construction industry is one of the major contributors for the depletion of resources at a global level. Moreover, it has taken a lot of time for the organization sin various countries to incorporate sustainability in the construction management industry (Ibrahim Kirui, 2017). This has led to the development of various concepts such as sustainable building, green building and sustainable construction. The community of research initially was focused on th e environmental issues and assessment problems. However, the perception of the people have changed which shows other areas of focus such as material productivity and energy savings. The approach of the researchers have become holistic and its consists of economic, environmental and social development. Research Aim The aim of this proposed research is to identify and undertake research on the impact of sustainability in construction management industry, which will illustrate the change in practices of the construction management industry. The study will also evaluate the various economic, social and environmental practices so that the overall assessment of the construction management can be done. Sustainability Policy Sustainability is now incorporated in organizations over various industries. It is one of the prioritized concerns of the companies to maintain sustainable development in their operation process. It is both to address the social responsibility of the business and to revenue generation. The Construction business is also have sustainable policy and is not excluded from the concept. The policies incorporated in the businesses widely vary from each other to identify themselves separately from the other similar competitions in the market. The findings of Zuo et al. (2012) in their work support the evidence and demonstrate a trend of an increased level of disclosure of organizations commitment in achieving the sustainability. They mainly focus on conservation of energy and efficiency, greenhouse gas emission reduction and assimilation of renewable energy sources in the projects to achieve the sustainable development. Advantages Sustainability is no doubt necessary in the construction business to address the challenges of global warming and other recently raised issues. Besides these necessities of the society, sustainable approach in construction business can bring growth in the industry. It has various advantages of in the operation that is potential in reducing the production cost of the business. Khatib (2016) conducted a detailed study on the materials used in construction industries. He has presented detailed in-depth overview of the materials and recyclability of the products. His study shows that most of the products used in the construction business can be reused by the company such as the timer, plastic frame, waste stone chips and many more. Moreover, Khatib demonstrates the alternative materials that can successfully replace some of the products utilized in construction to increase the sustainability of the industry. The work of Ogunbiyi et al. (2014) has successfully identified several advantages of implementation of sustainable construction. It not only benefits the companies in improving the corporate image and sustainable competitive advantage, but also improves the process of flow and productivity. It also helps them to incorporate the environmental consideration and increase the quality of it and facilitates in increasing compliance with the customers expectations. Ogunbiyi and his team have also identified the most common tools that are utilized in the process by various organizations that are daily huddle meeting, value stream mapping, and value analysis. The amalgamation of these tools for attaining sustainability in construction business results in waste reduction, value maximization and health and safety improvement not only for the workers, but also to the other stakeholders of the society. Use of sustainable approach in construction business not only reflects the financial improvemen t in the business but also results in the non-financial sectors that can prove advantageous for the business. Harris and McCaffer (2013) have classified the non financial indicators under some broad areas that are customer satisfaction, product and service quality, operational performance, employee commitment and social and environmental performance data. These indicate a steady growth of the business in the target market. One of the important tools that proves useful in maintaining sustainability in construction industry is the Building Information Modeling that not only shows its efficiency in formulating geometric model of a buildings performance, but can also assist in the management of construction project. One of the most significant effects of using the tool in construct is the reduction of the cost and control over the project life cycle. Hence, it can be concluded from the report that the sustainability in construction management also reflects the cost benefit to the organization (Bryde, Broquetas Volm, 2013). Yeheyis et al. (2013) in their work An Overview of construction and demolition waste management in Canada: a lifecycle analysis approach to sustainability demonstrate the waste management in the construction business. Their research shows that the waste generated from the construction in Canada is about 27% of the total solid waste deposited by the municipality. However, the implementation of sustainability in the construction industry has resulted into recycling the usable materials that decreases the cost of the business. The report shows that over 75% of the construction generated waste has enduring value that can be recycled, retrieved and reused in the future projects. A proper implementation of sustainability is now mandatory in Canada to address the increasing C and D waste volumes, shortage of landfills and long term adverse environmental, economic and social impact. The conceptual sustainable waste management framework successfully maximizes the reduction, reuse and recycle of the waste materials and minimize the disposal of construction waste by utilizing the sustainable strategy in the projects. Stakeholder Engagement Bal et al. (2013) in their work have addressed the importance of stakeholders engagement in attaining sustainability in the construction sector. Some of the stakeholders are marked as important in decision making, whose absence may lead to failure of achieving the sustainability. Their study concludes with the suggestion of understanding the various sustainability agendas of the stakeholders and measuring their performance for achieving the sustainability related goals. It is important to follow the mentioned steps for attaining success and using cent percent of the advantages out of the utilization of stakeholders in the process. Challenges of Sustainability There is very few research works exists that address the issues of incorporating sustainability in the construction. Glass (2012) is one of the few scholars who have worked on the challenging issues of the sustainability approach of construction industry. Glasss work reflects the challenges around data durability, reputation management, stakeholder engagement and the nature of the industry. The report suggests the companies to balance the commercial drivers with demands for high-profile sustainable and enhancing corporate sustainability. Literature Gap The above review of the literature demonstrates some of the advantages of sustainability in construction industry, engagement of the stakeholders, and versatility of the policies incorporated by the organizations. However, only few articles exist in the market that addresses the disadvantage of sustainability in construction. A hypothesis could be form that sustainable approach will potentially reduce the quality of the building constructed. Hence, there is ample amount of scope in the existing literature as it fails to identify the challenges and disadvantages occurs due to the use of sustainability approach in construction industry. Research Methodology Research methodology demonstrates the various research techniques, approaches, and design. The research is one of the most significant part of the research as it will help in obtaining the result of the study. In this present study, the justification for choosing each of the methods has been provided. The advantages and disadvantages of choosing a technique has been discussed thoroughly in the study. The methodology of research consists of postulations that have been predefined in the study, which will be used to execute the study (Mackey Gass, 2015). The methodology of research shows be precise and exact which will help in producing similar results when used in studies of similar topic. Research Philosophy The source and nature of the study will be included in the philosophy of the research. The research philosophy will consist of the creation of the knowledge which may seem to intense but there are mainly four types of philosophy in research. The research philosophies are positivism, interpretivism, realism and post positivism (Taylor, Bogdan DeVault, 2015). The philosophy of the research that has been selected for the study is positivism, as it will help to identify the hidden truth within the area of the study. Moreover, the scope of observation for the field of study will improve when positivism is used as the philosophy of research. Research Approach The hypothesis is one of the most significant part of the study as it will help to differentiate between the inductive and the deductive approach of research. The theoretical assumptions that have been made in the research will be validated with the help of the deductive approach, which means the deductive approach is used for the validation of the existing theories whereas inductive approach will used for the formulation of new generalizations and theories. The objective of the research and the hypothesis will be used for initializing the research where as the implementation of the research question will be done with the help of the inductive approach. Thus, the deductive approach is the most appropriate approach for the study, as it will help in the validation of the existing theories (Flick, 2015). Data collection The data collection method that will be used for the study is a mixed method where both the primary and the secondary analysis of the data will be done. The primary analysis of the data will include quantitative data where the data will be collected through questionnaires and surveys. The questionnaire will consist of close ended and random sample will be taken as the sample population. This will help to maintain the reliability and the validity of the test. The secondary analysis of the data will include the thematic analysis and qualitative data will be taken into consideration. The secondary data will be taken from five peer-reviewed journals, which will help to analyze the perspectives of different authors (Silverman, 2016). This will provide a better dimension to the current field of the study. The thematic analysis will be sued to create themes, which will support the primary analysis. Randomization is used is to select 50 respondents which will be the sample size for the resea rch. This research will consist of mixed methods which will offer a better understanding of the study. Data Analysis The research will consist of both quantitative and qualitative analysis of the data, which means the primary data, will used to analyze the perspective of the population sample. The secondary analysis of the data will be done by identifying common sets of patterns within the research. The secondary analysis will include the thematic analysis, which will analyze various journals and articles, which will help to understand all the dimension of the study. The conclusion from the existing journals will be linked with that of the primary analysis of the data (Panneerselvam, 2014). The analysis will have to be in alignment with the objectives and the goals of the study. The creation of the theme will be on the basis of the goals and objective of the current field of study. Findings and analysis How far do you agree that sustainability is significant in construction management? Options No. of response Percentage of the responses Total respondents Strongly agree 15 30% 50 Agree 20 40% 50 Neutral 1 2% 50 Disagree 10 20% 50 Strongly disagree 4 8% 50 Table 1: significance of sustainability This shows that the majority of the respondents are in agreement that sustainability has a significant impact on the business environment in construction. The graph shows that 70 % of the respondents are giving positive feedbacks about the sustainability management. Thus, it can be deduced that sustainability is significantly important for the organizations in the construction market. How far do you agree that sustainability has a strong influence on performance of the organizations? Options No. of response Percentage of the responses Total respondents Strongly agree 10 20% 50 Agree 20 40% 50 Neutral 0 0% 50 Disagree 17 34% 50 Strongly disagree 3 6% 50 Table 2: Impact of sustainability on organizational performance The graph shows that 60% of the respondents feel that sustainability will help to make improvements in the organizational performance. However, there is no clear majority, as 40 % of the respondents do not agree and this means that the sustainability is not preferred by all the organization as it increases their cost structure and it will be difficult to monitor the triple bottom line of any organization. How far do you agree that business sustainability is influenced by the reputation of the organizations in the market? Options No. of response Percentage of the responses Total respondents Strongly agree 7 14% 50 Agree 10 20% 50 Neutral 3 6% 50 Disagree 11 22% 50 Strongly disagree 19 38% 50 Table 3: Influence of reputation of the organization on sustainability The analysis of the data shows that majority of the respondents feel that reputation of the organization does not have any influence on the sustainability of the organization. However, there are 34% of the population agree that reputation will have influence on the sustainability of the organization. This means that its depends on the perspective of the different organization, there may be influence for some organization and it may not influence for the other organizations in the market. How far do you agree that sustainability will help to minimize the consumption of energy? Options No. of response Percentage of the responses Total respondents Strongly agree 18 36% 50 Agree 17 34% 50 Neutral 0 0% 50 Disagree 5 10% 50 Strongly disagree 10 20% 50 Table 4: Impact of sustainability in minimizing energy consumption The analysis of the graph shows that the sustainability practices in the construction ill help to reduce the consumption of energy. This will help to save the natural resources that are used in the construction business. This means that sustainability will help in conserving the environment and contribute to the corresponding society. Secondary Analysis The analysis of the peer reviewed journal shows that sustainability will have a lot of impact on the construction management industry. It is seen that the review of the most of the journals have proven that the most of the organization are using the sustainable practices to gain competitive advantage in the market. The organizations that use a triple bottom line has a better reputation in the market and are able to acquire capital very easily. This shows that sustainability will have a great influence on the construction management industry. The future trends in the market suggest that most of the organizations will be suing the triple bottom line as a means to gain competitive advantage in the market. The international standard organization (ISO) has been promoting the practices, which has to be used in construction management (Zhang et al., 2014). This shows that all the organizations are trying to change their business model in order to incorporate the triple bottom. However, ther e are lot of risks that are involved in the market. The organizations will have to be made sure that whether the incorporation of the sustainable practices is feasible for the organization or not. Thus, the organizations who are of small scale and medium scale have limited capital may face problems if the strategy does not work for them. Conclusion Thus, the conclusion that can be drawn from the study is that the sustainability development procedures will have a lot of impact on the sustainability of the organization. The primary and the secondary analysis of the data clearly shows that sustainable practices have been effective and has been able to facilitate the improvement of the performance of various organization in the construction industry. Reference Flick, U. (2015).Introducing research methodology: A beginner's guide to doing a research project. Sage. Mackey, A., Gass, S. M. (2015).Second language research: Methodology and design. Routledge. Panneerselvam, R. (2014).Research methodology. PHI Learning Pvt.Ltd.. Silverman, D. (Ed.). (2016).Qualitative research. Sage. Taylor, S. J., Bogdan, R., DeVault, M. (2015).Introduction to qualitative research methods: A guidebook and resource. John Wiley Sons. Bal, M., Bryde, D., Fearon, D., Ochieng, E. (2013). Stakeholder engagement: Achieving sustainability in the construction sector.Sustainability,5(2), 695-710. Bryde, D., Broquetas, M., Volm, J. M. (2013). The project benefits of building information modelling (BIM).International journal of project management,31(7), 971-980. Glass, J. (2012). The state of sustainability reporting in the construction sector.Smart and sustainable built environment,1(1), 87-104. Harris, F., McCaffer, R. (2013).Modern construction management. John Wiley Sons. Khatib, J. (Ed.). (2016).Sustainability of construction materials. Woodhead Publishing. Ogunbiyi, O., Goulding, J. S., Oladapo, A. (2014). An empirical study of the impact of lean construction techniques on sustainable construction in the UK.Construction innovation,14(1), 88-107. Yeheyis, M., Hewage, K., Alam, M. S., Eskicioglu, C., Sadiq, R. (2013). An overview of construction and demolition waste management in Canada: a lifecycle analysis approach to sustainability.Clean Technologies and Environmental Policy,15(1), 81-91. Zuo, J., Zillante, G., Wilson, L., Davidson, K., Pullen, S. (2012). Sustainability policy of construction contractors: A review.Renewable and Sustainable Energy Reviews,16(6), 3910-3916. Ibrahim, A. A., Kirui, M. C. (2017). MATERIAL MANAGEMENT AND SUSTAINABILITY OF COUNTY CONSTRUCTION PROJECTS IN GARISSA COUNTY, KENYA.International Journal of Project Management,1(1), 19-40. Zhang, X., Wu, Y., Shen, L., Skitmore, M. (2014). A prototype system dynamic model for assessing the sustainability of construction projects.International Journal of Project Management,32(1), 66-76.